I wouldn't, no, but then again I also wouldn't be the type to become violent about racial discrimination. You're framing the question in a hypothetical sense that doesn't apply to the society we live in. For example, if a group of people owns something and prefers not to sell it to another group of people, and the first group will leave the second group alone, I would absolutely use the law to force the first group to sell to the second group equally as they would to any of their same group.
The thing is, you're making an active statement by choosing not to sell to the second group (leave people alone). By "leaving them alone", you're discriminating against them. Take the sale aspect away and you're totally free to give anything to anyone that wants it or not give it to people you don't want to. The contract requires the state (otherwise discrimination happens, "need" in this example means "in order for an equal transaction to occur), and we should have equal contracts among equal parties.