Rob Roy
Well-Known Member
We've been over this, it's called "consent of the governed", you refuse to acknowledge Rousseau's arguments put forth regarding this even though it has been well established for more than 2 centuries. The government has no authority unless we give it to them through consent.
If you expect a government official to come door to door asking everyone "Do you consent to _____ being discussed in congress this week?", then you're simply delusional. An efficient government cannot operate in that way, they knew that in the formation of the country, that's why we hold federal elections to elect people to represent us in government. You give your consent in the hopes that your elected representative will best serve your interests, sometimes people feel like they do, sometimes people feel like they don't, but that's how the system works in a representative republic. If you want direct democracy, you will need to explain how that would work effectively and be as efficient or more efficient than the system we have now.
The argument is invalid and relies on the meaning of the word "consent" to be changed from being what it really is, an INDIVIDUAL ACTION, to an action wherein other people can provide it for you. The word you are looking for is not consent, resignation is a more fitting term.
Are you saying that the meaning of the word consent changes when it applies to a government action ?
If a fallacy is repeated verbatim for 200 years is that the magic number that makes the fallacy become true?
Tacit consent is steeped in false dichotomy and rationalization.
Don't make me conjure up Lysander Spooner, cuz I will.