Greatest I am
Active Member
Who was correct, Jews or Christians? Was Eden our elevationor our fall?
The Jewish view. http://www.mrrena.com/misc/judaism2.php
Instead of the Fall of man (in the sense of humanity as awhole), Judaism preaches the Rise of man: and instead of Original Sin, itstresses Original Virtue
In a nutshell, the Jews saw man acquiring a moral senseequal to Gods, --- as man being elevated.
Gen 3; 22 And the Lord God said, Behold, the man is becomeas one of us, to know good and evil:
The Christian view sees the same story and preaches our falland all of us inheriting our forefathers sin. http://www.biblegateway.com/resources/dictionaries/dict_meaning.php?source=1&wid=T0001304
They prove the loss not only of innocence but of originalrighteousness, and, with it, of the favour and fellowship of God.
The Bible seems to favor the Jewish view.
Deuteronomy 24:16 (ESV) Fathers shall not be put to death because of their children, norshall children be put to death because of their fathers. Each one shall be putto death for his own sin.
Ezekiel 18:20 (ESV)The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of thefather, nor the father suffer for the iniquity of the son. The righteousness ofthe righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall beupon himself.
The declaration which says that God visits the sins of thefathers upon the children is contrary to every principle of moral justice.[Thomas Paine, The Age of Reason]
Whose view is more intelligent and moral and why?
Regards
DL
The Jewish view. http://www.mrrena.com/misc/judaism2.php
Instead of the Fall of man (in the sense of humanity as awhole), Judaism preaches the Rise of man: and instead of Original Sin, itstresses Original Virtue
In a nutshell, the Jews saw man acquiring a moral senseequal to Gods, --- as man being elevated.
Gen 3; 22 And the Lord God said, Behold, the man is becomeas one of us, to know good and evil:
The Christian view sees the same story and preaches our falland all of us inheriting our forefathers sin. http://www.biblegateway.com/resources/dictionaries/dict_meaning.php?source=1&wid=T0001304
They prove the loss not only of innocence but of originalrighteousness, and, with it, of the favour and fellowship of God.
The Bible seems to favor the Jewish view.
Deuteronomy 24:16 (ESV) Fathers shall not be put to death because of their children, norshall children be put to death because of their fathers. Each one shall be putto death for his own sin.
Ezekiel 18:20 (ESV)The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of thefather, nor the father suffer for the iniquity of the son. The righteousness ofthe righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall beupon himself.
The declaration which says that God visits the sins of thefathers upon the children is contrary to every principle of moral justice.[Thomas Paine, The Age of Reason]
Whose view is more intelligent and moral and why?
Regards
DL