Rob Roy
Well-Known Member
OK Dumdum when I stand in front of the counter and ask for service at some Public place I'm not really dealing with an individual, I'm doing business with a company if the homophobic behind the counter doesn't want to serve me I'm not gonna force him, He can always quit, making the job available for more open minded person.
What if the person that owns the private property that is sometimes used for business interactions is gay, and not homophobic should they be forced to use their body and their private property in ways they'd prefer not to?
A public place is different from a privately owned place isn't it? Why yes it is.
What is supposed to make it different is the ostensible owner in order to be the owner sets the rules of how the property will be used. So by extrapolation, you are agreeing with me that the real qualities of ownership has shifted hands from the person that is purported to own it to the entity that has set the rules of how the property will or will not be used.
Also, you didn't answer my question. There are a lot of people here that aren't very good at answering that question, maybe you can do a better job?
Please explain who has a right to force other people to serve them and where this "right" originates ?