Actually serfs were not chattel, by definition.
Why must you try so hard to redefine words? Could it be that your arguments are fallacious?
chattel status has NOTHING to do with slavery or serfdom.
you are deliberately trying to re-define serfdom to conform to your narrative, yet britannica again demonstrates that you are a fool:
serfdom, condition in medieval Europe in which a tenant farmer was bound to a hereditary plot of land and to the will of his landlord. The vast majority of serfs in medieval Europe obtained their subsistence by cultivating a plot of land that was owned by a lord. This was the essential feature differentiating serfs from
slaves, who were bought and sold without reference to a plot of land. The serf provided his own food and clothing from his own productive efforts. A substantial proportion of the grain the serf grew on his holding had to be given to his lord. The lord could also compel the serf to cultivate that portion of the lords land that was not held by other tenants (called
demesne land). The serf also had to use his
lords grain mills and no others.
http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/535485/serfdom
even wikipedia says you are full of shit:
Serfdom is the status of
peasants under
feudalism, specifically relating to
manorialism. It was a condition of
bondage or modified
slavery which developed primarily during the
High Middle Ages in Europe and lasted in some countries until the mid-19th century.
Serfs who occupied a plot of land were required to work for the
Lord of the Manor who owned that land, and in return were entitled to protection, justice and the right to exploit certain fields within the
manor to maintain their own subsistence. Serfs were often required not only to work on the lord's fields, but also his mines, forests and roads. The
manor formed the basic unit of feudal society and the
Lord of the Manor and his serfs were bound legally, economically, and socially. Serfs formed the lowest
social class of feudal society.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serfdom
even the communists at Vlib say you are full of shit, before they go off the rails with crazy marxist goofball theories:
The question of the difference between ancient slavery and medieval serfdom may seem to be a rather minor point to be discussing, but it is one that has absorbed the attention of generations of Marxist-influenced historians. Karl Marx held that society evolved in accordance with economic law. His colleague, Friederich Engels, proposed that that evolution proceeds through four major stages, each characterized by its principle mode of production. The first stage is ancient slavery, followed by medieval serfdom, modern wage exploitation, and future communism. Lenin elaborated the scheme a bit, dividing the era of communism itself into four stages: the revolt of the working class and their seizure of the means of production, the dictatorship of the working class and their abolition of class, the withering away of a state that no longer has a repressive function to perform, and final communism.
http://www.vlib.us/medieval/lectures/serfdom.html
a modifiied form of slavery is still slavery, thus you are simply WRONG.