Impossible! The deficit is falling as well as unemployment Obama wrecking economy

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Lol "apple" is in no statute I know of just hypothetical example....how funny if it were that would simply mean statutes aren't for the average guy there are too many and they are too complicated for anyone but law society to stand under which is why common law remedy is preserved in all cases. Which is why the constitution is so deeply set in natural law.
I actually did find a statutory definition of "apple." The fact that the law is too complex for the average guy to understand is irrelevant.

Of course, the Judiciary Act doesn't preserve a common law remedy "in all cases." The Judiciary Act says that an admiralty court must be brought in federal court, except that an admiralty suit can be brought in state court where the state common law is competent to grant a remedy. That's it.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
So the proceedings are either civil or criminal then? If it's criminal the "regulations" are all the same then? If the source of the proceeding is the statute the proceeding is not bound by laws of the statute and it's definitions then? This is not a different source than Supreme Court District Court Constitutional common law then?
Proceedings are either civil or criminal, correct. On the second point, again, I think you're casting the United States as a civil law system and ignoring that we have a common law system. Yes, if the source of a crime is the statute, you are bound to the text of the statute and its definitions. But the statute is only one piece of the law. Because court decisions are precedential, you also have to look to court decisions, because they can substantively alter statutes without changing the text.

I'll give you an example of the common law at work to change the meaning of statutory law. I don't remember exactly what it was, but there was a statute limiting the ability of some party to obtain damages from a government. A court basically admitted that the statute limited the damage payments but said developments in the time since congress had originally passed the statute warranted allowing recoveries. Shortly after this happened, congress enacted a new statute into law affirming the original law and discounting the court decision.

I have no idea what "Supreme Court District Court Constitution common law" is.

The crime of counterfeiting is only a crime for persons like you and I under one jurisdiction which is this bizarro "statutory" one, this jurisdiction literally allows another person to counterfeit legally.....you know the fed is technically a corporation a "body corporate" aka a "person".....so we all know Oprah is Oprah Inc. like literally same status as fed can Oprah open an Oprah Bank and print Oprah notes in this day and age? You know how many ppl would prolly use Oprah notes and have a bomb economy seriously?
To be clear, the Board of Governors is a federal agency; the reserve banks are corporations. But another logical fallacy regardless. The fact that the reserve banks and Harpo are both corporations does not mean that they are comparable entities. Corporations are efficient organizational structures, so you shouldn't be surprised that a bank would be organized as a corporation. The reserve banks are specially empowered by federal statutes to do things other corporations cannot; and unlike corporations, they earn no profits, ownership of shares bestows no control, and the shares of stock are impossible to transfer.

Funny you should mention Oprah currency. The closest we had was this:

4540.JPG

I take it they came up with "Flooz" because the alternative was "Whoopi Notes." The company obviously folded very quickly...
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Wal-Mart Notes or bonds? Harbor Freight Notes or bonds? Oh wait I can buy stock in Oprah or Wal-Mart but I can't spend that stock as currency oh shit is that a Monopoly on Currency is that legal? Especially since we have 2 types from 2 sources to choose from supposedly as indicated by the Statutes?
Except we don't practically have two currencies. The treasury can issue $61 million in United States Notes forever; the government will spend $3.8 trillion in Federal Reserve Notes this year. Almost all United States currency is Federal Reserve Notes, save some tiny, insignificant fraction. This redemption stuff has been around for 30 years; if it were true, surely all the United States Notes would have been claimed.

There is no statute providing that the $300 million limit on United States Notes-lawful money--can be exceeded by performing some magic wash with Federal Reserve Notes. That came straight from your own ass.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
I actually did find a statutory definition of "apple." The fact that the law is too complex for the average guy to understand is irrelevant.

Of course, the Judiciary Act doesn't preserve a common law remedy "in all cases." The Judiciary Act says that an admiralty court must be brought in federal court, except that an admiralty suit can be brought in state court where the state common law is competent to grant a remedy. That's it.
How to answer with the same tact......the fact the "law" is too complex for the average guy to understand is irrelevant, is irrelevant.

Hard to argue with that logic in the sandlot so I won't.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Proceedings are either civil or criminal, correct. On the second point, again, I think you're casting the United States as a civil law system and ignoring that we have a common law system. Yes, if the source of a crime is the statute, you are bound to the text of the statute and its definitions. But the statute is only one piece of the law. Because court decisions are precedential, you also have to look to court decisions, because they can substantively alter statutes without changing the text.

I'll give you an example of the common law at work to change the meaning of statutory law. I don't remember exactly what it was, but there was a statute limiting the ability of some party to obtain damages from a government. A court basically admitted that the statute limited the damage payments but said developments in the time since congress had originally passed the statute warranted allowing recoveries. Shortly after this happened, congress enacted a new statute into law affirming the original law and discounting the court decision.

I have no idea what "Supreme Court District Court Constitution common law" is.



To be clear, the Board of Governors is a federal agency; the reserve banks are corporations. But another logical fallacy regardless. The fact that the reserve banks and Harpo are both corporations does not mean that they are comparable entities. Corporations are efficient organizational structures, so you shouldn't be surprised that a bank would be organized as a corporation. The reserve banks are specially empowered by federal statutes to do things other corporations cannot; and unlike corporations, they earn no profits, ownership of shares bestows no control, and the shares of stock are impossible to transfer.

Funny you should mention Oprah currency. The closest we had was this:

View attachment 2729927

I take it they came up with "Flooz" because the alternative was "Whoopi Notes." The company obviously folded very quickly...


IDK I think "One form of action" would disagree there being civil law system for equity....of course you are bound by the statute of course but the common law won't come up unless you mention it is the way I see it......which is why Remedy for this very reason was written in for the Currency.....The Foundation of the Nation was based on what is money and who gets to print it.

So fed notes have high commercial value by decree that they are obligations of the US...you and I have no practical choice but to use them even though we have clear lawful authority to use either US Notes or FR Notes.........you argue US Notes are bound by statute to 300 million this is set in stone no more than the debt ceiling for FRN's which iirc is also statutory in nature and we are at the limit now......

Supreme Court District Court common law would be cases valid as evidence provided jurisdiction is established to use them.....which would be a court of competent jurisdiction mentioned in the Judiciary Act in other words Traffic Court probably won't allow a "right to travel" defense given you have a license with a signature endorsement on it.

So the board of governors is a federal agency ok so Bernanke is a government agent..........
I am not surprised a bank is structured as a corporation....or a government for that matter....just surprised you didn't notice the Federal Reserve has its own special section in Banks and Banking that allows it special rules under its contract with the government ...which is called a Charter....A Charter establishes a Corporation.......you say only the district banks are corporations so having a hard time following your double speak really.......so care to link the Fed's charter/contract?

Care to discuss further how there is no contract into equity and maritime law under the new "trust" FDR established in 1933?http://img9.imageshack.us/img9/4556/governmentbondslarge.jpg

The gold seizure in 1933 was voluntary at first then was mandated http://friends-n-family-research.info/FFR/Merrill_TWA_Collections.jpg

So essentially being made to volunteer to help formed a trust and you think that sounds perfectly American?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Except we don't practically have two currencies. The treasury can issue $61 million in United States Notes forever; the government will spend $3.8 trillion in Federal Reserve Notes this year. Almost all United States currency is Federal Reserve Notes, save some tiny, insignificant fraction. This redemption stuff has been around for 30 years; if it were true, surely all the United States Notes would have been claimed.

There is no statute providing that the $300 million limit on United States Notes-lawful money--can be exceeded by performing some magic wash with Federal Reserve Notes. That came straight from your own ass.
No we don't practically have two note currencies which is the problem.....we literally have two note currencies and we literally have the right to choose whichever one but we have no practical access to the other choice.....not technically a monopoly but practically the monopoly is very real.

http://www.treasury.gov/resource-center/faqs/currency/pages/legal-tender.aspx

"Both United States Notes and Federal Reserve Notes are parts of our national currency and both are legal tender. They circulate as money in the same way. However, the issuing authority for them comes from different statutes"

So the 300 million can never ever ever be raised says who? I can't show you the statute that would raise it but you can't show one that it can't be raised either........shit it was 150 million at first so it was already raised to the 300million it is now.......so what is 300 million adjusted for inflation it would be more than half the GDP giving ample choice and easy access to choice between money issued by government or "money" issued by corporate bank who's charter is long over and has failed miserably to maintain the value of a dollar given the same debt to income ratio you or I have to deal with when getting loans.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
How to answer with the same tact......the fact the "law" is too complex for the average guy to understand is irrelevant, is irrelevant.

Hard to argue with that logic in the sandlot so I won't.
"I didn't understand, the law was too complex!" isn't a defense when the government charges you with a crime.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
IDK I think "One form of action" would disagree there being civil law system for equity....of course you are bound by the statute of course but the common law won't come up unless you mention it is the way I see it......which is why Remedy for this very reason was written in for the Currency.....The Foundation of the Nation was based on what is money and who gets to print it.
The fact that statutes are the main source of law doesn't mean we have a civil law system. We have a common law system because the courts are empowered to interpret the statutes, issuing decisions that are binding on all future parties. This is why we don't have civil law system at all.

The remedy you're talking about is an admiralty remedy having nothing to do with currency.

So fed notes have high commercial value by decree that they are obligations of the US...you and I have no practical choice but to use them even though we have clear lawful authority to use either US Notes or FR Notes.........you argue US Notes are bound by statute to 300 million this is set in stone no more than the debt ceiling for FRN's which iirc is also statutory in nature and we are at the limit now......
Essentially, yes, I agree with all of that.

Supreme Court District Court common law would be cases valid as evidence provided jurisdiction is established to use them.....which would be a court of competent jurisdiction mentioned in the Judiciary Act in other words Traffic Court probably won't allow a "right to travel" defense given you have a license with a signature endorsement on it.
You seem to be confusing the idea of "jurisdiction" with sources of law. Jurisdiction is just the right to hear a case. The federal courts have the right to hear cases when the constitution or a federal statute says they do; otherwise, some other court has the right to hear cases. The Judiciary Act merely says that federal courts have the right to hear admiralty cases, except that you can seek common law admiralty remedies in state courts where they're available.

Sources of law are the places "the law" actually comes from. Sources of law include the constitution, statutes, regulations, and court cases. Which sources of law are applicable depend on the matter at issue and the court. If you're in state court dealing with state negotiable instruments law, the Judiciary Act and all other federal law is irrelevant.

A traffic court is a state court presumably bound by some codification of state traffic law. The Judiciary Act has nothing to do with the traffic court's jurisdiction because it is established under state law and not a federal court. They won't allow your "right to travel" defense because state traffic law says you need a license.

So the board of governors is a federal agency ok so Bernanke is a government agent..........
I am not surprised a bank is structured as a corporation....or a government for that matter....just surprised you didn't notice the Federal Reserve has its own special section in Banks and Banking that allows it special rules under its contract with the government ...which is called a Charter....A Charter establishes a Corporation.......you say only the district banks are corporations so having a hard time following your double speak really.......so care to link the Fed's charter/contract?
Correct. Bernanke was appointed by the president and confirmed by the senate to serve as the head of a federal agency, the Board of Governors, which is why he must make periodic reports to the congress. The Board of Governors is not a corporation.

The reserve banks are organized as corporations, but as I noted, they aren't really corporations. All national banks are required to own stock in a reserve bank (and almost half the state banks do as well); the stock has no control rights; the stock cannot be sold or used as collateral; and the dividend is a fixed sum, with all other profit the reserve banks earn being paid to the treasury. You're decrying this "contract with the government" as if it's evidence of something nefarious. Congress created the Fed to carry out this function and to carry it out independent of political pressure from the executive or legislative branches of government.

I have no idea what Fed charter you're talking about if it isn't the organization document for the reserve banks described in the Federal Reserve Act.

Care to discuss further how there is no contract into equity and maritime law under the new "trust" FDR established in 1933?http://img9.imageshack.us/img9/4556/governmentbondslarge.jpg

The gold seizure in 1933 was voluntary at first then was mandated
http://friends-n-family-research.info/FFR/Merrill_TWA_Collections.jpg

So essentially being made to volunteer to help formed a trust and you think that sounds perfectly American?
What you linked says nothing about a "contract into equity" or "maritime law."

I'm not here to defend FDR's gold seizure.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
No we don't practically have two note currencies which is the problem.....we literally have two note currencies and we literally have the right to choose whichever one but we have no practical access to the other choice.....not technically a monopoly but practically the monopoly is very real.

http://www.treasury.gov/resource-center/faqs/currency/pages/legal-tender.aspx

"Both United States Notes and Federal Reserve Notes are parts of our national currency and both are legal tender. They circulate as money in the same way. However, the issuing authority for them comes from different statutes"
The lack of practical access is why I said we don't practically have two currencies. There's $15 trillion in economic activity in this country each year and only $61 million in United States Notes that haven't been issued; no new ones have been issued in more than 40 years. The other $239 million of those notes isn't circulating as currency in the economy, it's held by collectors. Practically, it is impossible to access and use United States Notes in everyday economic activity.

So the 300 million can never ever ever be raised says who? I can't show you the statute that would raise it but you can't show one that it can't be raised either........shit it was 150 million at first so it was already raised to the 300million it is now.......so what is 300 million adjusted for inflation it would be more than half the GDP giving ample choice and easy access to choice between money issued by government or "money" issued by corporate bank who's charter is long over and has failed miserably to maintain the value of a dollar given the same debt to income ratio you or I have to deal with when getting loans.
I never said the $300 million limit couldn't be raised. To raise it, all congress would have to do is pass a statute that says "'$x' is substituted for "$300,000,000" in subparagraph 1 of paragraph b of section 5115 of title 31 of the United States Code." Upon the president's signature, the limit on United States Notes would be whatever $x is.

Indeed, as you point out, congress has fiddled with the limit in exactly this way multiple before, raising and lowering it. They retain the same control now. But until congress acts, the limit is the limit congress last set, which is $300 million.
 

NoDrama

Well-Known Member
And "bought" it all at what $30 per oz? Even all the way up to the end of Bretton Woods?
I don't think people understand that the Banks are the biggest holders of gold of them all. They think gold bugs hold a bunch for some reason. Gold bugs hold less than 1% of what the banks have.

Mostly the point of the shitting gold was tokenprep pointing out that the Federal reserve banks don't make any profit. Why would they care about profit when they can skip all that work and just make the money outright? If you could shit gold why would you need a job? If The fed can just create currency, why would it need to have a profit?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
The lack of practical access is why I said we don't practically have two currencies. There's $15 trillion in economic activity in this country each year and only $61 million in United States Notes that haven't been issued; no new ones have been issued in more than 40 years. The other $239 million of those notes isn't circulating as currency in the economy, it's held by collectors. Practically, it is impossible to access and use United States Notes in everyday economic activity.

Impossible to access if you have made no demand..............Ya so you know the same exact machine prints US Notes and Fed Notes right it's at the printing and engraving right?.........No new ones have been issued for 40 years....yawn....how many have demanded such other than JFK? We have a right to demand lawful money and the US is obliged to provide it...it literally is the law....obviously not in gold or silver so what is left? What's the only option? How would Milam's case have gone if he treated the Fed as a child that only did what it was allowed to do? How would Milam's case have gone had he been at the Treasury to redeem his note?

I never said the $300 million limit couldn't be raised. To raise it, all congress would have to do is pass a statute that says "'$x' is substituted for "$300,000,000" in subparagraph 1 of paragraph b of section 5115 of title 31 of the United States Code." Upon the president's signature, the limit on United States Notes would be whatever $x is.

So when is the last time this came up at your local town hall meeting??????????

Indeed, as you point out, congress has fiddled with the limit in exactly this way multiple before, raising and lowering it. They retain the same control now. But until congress acts, the limit is the limit congress last set, which is $300 million.
Some control? They retain full control of US Notes and full control of Fed Notes and the Fed's charter........Congress merely acts like the Fed Controls things and knows best because it serves Congress to act ignorant.......this arrangement merely allows Congress to spend more than it takes in for taxes ultimately taxing you without your knowledge in the form of inflation.....that is not a Constitutional tax buddy.

It would be wrong to say this Fed Congress system is unconstitutional in fact it is merely non-constitutional. It simply resides outside the scope of the Constitution by way of contract......The Constitution allows Congress to borrow Money....Congress contracts, in trust, on our behalf, with the Fed by depositing this Money with the Fed and makes Fed Notes which are obligations of the US and are "elastic" and expandable and commercial worldwide based on the contract only and for no other reason than mine and your hard work and assets and production abilities are literally pledged as collateral on our behalf.

You say the Fed is not a corporation per say......it doesn't matter they literally are a corporation, even if the Board is appointed by the Executive branch it doesn't matter, the Board does not get paid by our government and the Corporation has obligations to its shareholders. If everything went off without a hitch as you think it has then we would have no national debt, we would be borrowing from ourselves and paying ourselves back with interest as you think we are so why do we need a Bank in the middle of that? We don't. It is a huge conflict of interest.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
I don't think people understand that the Banks are the biggest holders of gold of them all. They think gold bugs hold a bunch for some reason. Gold bugs hold less than 1% of what the banks have.

Mostly the point of the shitting gold was tokenprep pointing out that the Federal reserve banks don't make any profit. Why would they care about profit when they can skip all that work and just make the money outright? If you could shit gold why would you need a job? If The fed can just create currency, why would it need to have a profit?
For sure even the 1928 FRN was only 40% backed by gold iirc so that literally means it took $4 worth of gold to back a $10 bill.....and you never have to worry about the bill clearing the bank LOL.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member


This note is a contract that reads "The United States of Amererica will pay to the bearer on demand five dollars redeemable in gold or lawful money".
It is not five dollars, it is not gold and it is not lawful money....and is no longer redeemable in gold or silver but still an obligation for lawful money and five dollars none the less.



This note bears the same contract and is not redeemable in lawful money, or gold anymore....iirc 37th congress provided for redemption in bonds in $50 incriments (as they are aware this is still a fiat debt instrument)




This is a Certificate that Certifies one Silver Dollar is on deposit at Treasury which means this is not an "instrument" and this is non negotiable.....although it is a demand certificate.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Impossible to access if you have made no demand..............Ya so you know the same exact machine prints US Notes and Fed Notes right it's at the printing and engraving right?.........No new ones have been issued for 40 years....yawn....how many have demanded such other than JFK? We have a right to demand lawful money and the US is obliged to provide it...it literally is the law....obviously not in gold or silver so what is left? What's the only option? How would Milam's case have gone if he treated the Fed as a child that only did what it was allowed to do? How would Milam's case have gone had he been at the Treasury to redeem his note?
This currency redemption scheme (the tax protestor arguments, not the statute) has been in existence for more than 30 years. If you don't think $61 million worth of United States Notes would have been redeemed in that time, I don't know what to tell you. The average person makes about $30,000 a year; if 2,000 average people had redeemed all of their currency in a single year, they would have exhausted the supply of United States Notes that the treasury can issue.

So when is the last time this came up at your local town hall meeting??????????
Irrelevant. The limit is the limit until the limit is raised.

Some control? They retain full control of US Notes and full control of Fed Notes and the Fed's charter........Congress merely acts like the Fed Controls things and knows best because it serves Congress to act ignorant.......this arrangement merely allows Congress to spend more than it takes in for taxes ultimately taxing you without your knowledge in the form of inflation.....that is not a Constitutional tax buddy.
See, I'd say congress is happy to have one less thing to worry about, because they don't know shit about monetary policy. Nothing. Their staff is going to do whatever it is you would like for the congressperson to do anyway, but the congressperson really just doesn't care. They have 100 other pressing issues on their plate, most of them far more important to re-election than monetary policy.

It would be wrong to say this Fed Congress system is unconstitutional in fact it is merely non-constitutional. It simply resides outside the scope of the Constitution by way of contract......The Constitution allows Congress to borrow Money....Congress contracts, in trust, on our behalf, with the Fed by depositing this Money with the Fed and makes Fed Notes which are obligations of the US and are "elastic" and expandable and commercial worldwide based on the contract only and for no other reason than mine and your hard work and assets and production abilities are literally pledged as collateral on our behalf.
There is no contract. You cannot identify any contract. When congress delegated its monetary powers to the Fed in the Federal Reserve Act, congress did not "make a contract," it delegated its powers by legislation enacted by congress and signed by the president. The Fed is not in any contract; it exercises the powers congress gave it until congress sees fits to remove those powers by repealing or amending the legislation.

You say the Fed is not a corporation per say......it doesn't matter they literally are a corporation, even if the Board is appointed by the Executive branch it doesn't matter, the Board does not get paid by our government and the Corporation has obligations to its shareholders. If everything went off without a hitch as you think it has then we would have no national debt, we would be borrowing from ourselves and paying ourselves back with interest as you think we are so why do we need a Bank in the middle of that? We don't. It is a huge conflict of interest.
It's true that the Board of Governors is not funded by a congressional appropriation; they pay their expenses before returning profits to the treasury. So yes, the Board of Governors is paid out of funds generated by the Fed. But we know how much they make; we know exactly how the Fed spends its money. So unless there's something damning about that, I don't see how you have a case. We know exactly how much money Ben Bernanke makes every year; there is no sweetheart reserve bank stock option deal because there's no such thing.

You say corporations have obligations to their shareholders, and that's true under state corporate law. The Fed is not established under state corporate law. There are no obligations to shareholders. The Federal Reserve Act makes clear that the reserve banks have no such obligations!
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Lol here's a case affirming fed notes negotiable instruments....it is us v salman

" A Federal Reserve note is a negotiable instrument-it can “pass from hand to hand, either by delivery or indorsement, giving to each successive recipient a right against the debtor.” Thomas E. Holland, The Elements of Jurisprudence 315-16 (13th ed.1924)."

" Ted Reusser, a bank examiner with the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency of the Department of the Treasury, testified at Salman's trial that sight drafts are commonly nonnegotiable and that labeling a sight draft nonnegotiable does not render it invalid, but merely places “some limitations on how [it] can be passed around if people play by the rules.” 3 Therefore, a sight draft, unlike a Federal Reserve note, is not necessarily a member of the negotiable class of financial instruments......"


But wait I already know the reply.....that's irrelevant eh?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
The contract is whatever...the note is a contract....the fed act is a contract....ss trust is a contract whatever....a contract must exist the fact the notes are elastic, negotiable and there is literally no "profit" sitting in treasury is evidence of contract......

Redemption "scheme"?? So congress is scheming then? So proir to 1933 why did supreme court uphold wages as not "income" then?

You are pushing your tax protestor bullshit argument to evade the discussion at hand lawful money being non taxable is a complete aside to this discussion and you know it
....this discussion is about why frns are debt instruments and carry interest as you (tokeprep)have erroneously insisted they are not......having claimed complete authority on the matter no less........which is a huge liability you have assumed in this discussion then you reckon its on me to explain everything for you; its on the person that claims authority to justify the authority then the subject matter......I have claimed zero authority but provided sources for all evidence you are simply wrong about what the bank notes are in federal law merchant....and what they are in Law....commercial law is the law of contracts and fed notes are commercial instruments simple as that.

Congress did not delegate its money powers in the fed act go ahead and piece together quotes from the act to that effect and reckon how us notes, coins, bonds and treasuries figure into that ficticious assertion, thanks.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Ted Reusser, being a bank examiner for the Comptroller of the Currency tells us that restrictive indorsment of an instrument with simple verbage indicating such places "limitations on how it can be passed around if people play by the rules."......the "people" that may "play by the rules" are bankers.....cause Ted is a bank examiner.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
the federal reserve act makes clear there are no such obligations??? Lol the food stamp program makes clear it is to provide healthy food and proper nutrition...having worked in grocery stores for some time I can't count the number of fatties I have counted swiping a benefits card purchasing buggies full of soft drinks and junk food.....ya we know how much the fed chairman makes so what?

Congress is a 16 year old girl with a credit card and has charged anything her heart desires......this is corruption and deception on the highest level.

When you get a loan the big secret is the note you sign is the actual money bonded by your substance or "promise to pay". Without your signature on the note there is nothing to loan you. You provide the consideration on both sides of the contract and you pay the debt as well. Without your siggy the bank has nothing to give you....without your siggy you have nothing to give them.....consideration must be provided on both sides to be lawful.

The catch 22 is that this is a "benefit" offered by statute. It literally is the same benefit congress enjoys to get their loans on demand....they do it and we do it.

If you borrow 1k from a bank your signed promise to pay 1k is the money.....bank deposits the money and creates 1k in banknotes representing the money for you to "benefit" from.....if you pay back the banknotes the original money you signed is retired and the books are balanced leaving no money and you scrounging for interest....but there's not any so you must default and forfeit your work and property.

This system is the antithesis of property rights because now the bank can repo whatever you "purchased" with the 1k.....having provided no consideration. This would be a "seizure on land" resulting from equity contract based on false consideration.....unless the bank was honest and disclosed all this to you which they didn't but hey you never asked either now did you?

So where is the remedy written in for this transaction? 12usc411 of course, unless of course your bank lent you something other than federal reserve notes....which were literally negotiated into existence when signed the loan.... pffft kaapow.
 
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